06-07-2008, 07:23 PM | #1 |
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The Greek in John 1:9
I have my interlinear out and I'm over my head in the Greek. Are there reasonable grounds for translating John 1:9 as something like:
"He is the true light that illuminates everyone coming into the world?" Thanks in advance...
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06-07-2008, 07:54 PM | #2 | |
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Quote:
It does seem that the usual reading which links erchomenon with fos is the more widely accepted one.
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06-07-2008, 09:19 PM | #3 | |
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Quote:
Interestingly, I always read it the other way, as illuminating the people who are coming into th world. The KJV: That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world. Either way, both the humans and the light end up in the world, I guess.
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06-08-2008, 04:41 PM | #4 | |
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Okay, tell me why you believe it to be a neuter singular nominative.
Quote:
Again, I'm probably behind SEIQ on this one, so I apologize profusely. In fact, in all things intellectual, I am behind you three. It feels like a masculine middle participle in the accusative, even I suppose it could look like a singular neuter, but it just doesn't feel right. Wouldn't you place erchomenon closer to fos if you wanted to emphasize fos?
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06-08-2008, 07:06 PM | #5 | |
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06-08-2008, 07:08 PM | #6 | |
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Editors of Nestle-Aland's text, for example, punctuate the sentence to suggest that erchomenon goes with fos:
Quote:
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06-08-2008, 11:51 PM | #7 |
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I saw that, but I don't like it that much. However, I am at such a low rung, my interpretation has no merit, so I bow to the interpretation of you, SEIQ, Solon and Pelagius, and of course Chapel Hill if he were here.
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