01-16-2008, 01:42 AM | #61 | |
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Location: the far corner of my mind
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Btw, I am glad you showed up on this, I was wondering what had happened to you.
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Sorry for th e tpyos. |
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01-16-2008, 01:59 AM | #62 | |
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Location: Happy Valley, PA
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I think you're right to ask for the overall point and for an assessment of the overall significance, especially since I think it's fairly easily demonstrated that those who wrote the NT were well versed in Greek philosophical language (which, to me, is the overall point). The beginning of John is just one of many examples. To what extent the writers of the NT were adopting Greek philosophical concepts or just using the terminology and language to advance their own (or Jesus') novel ideas is for the biblical scholars and theologians (not me) to decide. I suspect both forces are at work. I've been relaxing at the in-laws' for a few weeks, a land where computers cannot function. . . They've never owned a computer, but they have a $4,000 television. Go figure.
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I hope for nothing. I fear nothing. I am free. - Epitaph of Nikos Kazantzakis (1883-1957) |
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01-16-2008, 04:16 PM | #63 | |
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Location: Seattle, WA
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Interrupt all you like. We're involved in a complicated story here, and not everything is quite what it seems to be. —Paul Auster |
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05-05-2008, 03:31 AM | #64 |
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I had a discussion this evening with a man who is a temple worker, a lawyer, and studies ancient Hebrew and Greek. His thoughts on John 1:1 are as follows.
Logos ("the word") = the law. There was a counsel of judges who understood the law, and Jehovah was the voice of that quorum. Think of it as similar to the way a Supreme Court justice reads the court's decision to the people. In the beginning, the law existed, and the law was with the voice of the quorum (Jehovah), and the law governed. That law was love, truth, mercy, justice, and intelligence in their absolute and perfected forms. |
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