12-03-2009, 12:12 AM | #1 | ||||
Assistant to the Regional Manager
Join Date: Aug 2005
Location: The Orgasmatron
Posts: 24,338
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Why do you think King James translators interpreted Isaiah Chapter 48
verse one in this fashion:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
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Ἓν οἶδα ὅτι οὐδὲν οἶδα |
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12-03-2009, 03:43 AM | #2 |
Demiurge
Join Date: Aug 2005
Posts: 36,368
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Don't understand the question. No idea.
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04-09-2012, 05:20 PM | #3 | |
Senior Member
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Location: NOVA
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Quote:
Some of the BOM matches the Dead Sea Scrolls instead of the KJV. But some repeats the KJV's errors.
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太初有道 Last edited by ChinoCoug; 04-09-2012 at 06:44 PM. |
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